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The CASP+ certification is recognized by major corporations and government agencies around the world. It is highly valued by employers who are looking for professionals with advanced cybersecurity skills. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is also recognized by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and meets the requirements of the DoD 8570.01-M for Information Assurance Manager Level III and Information Assurance Technical Level III.

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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Sample Questions (Q465-Q470):

NEW QUESTION # 465
While investigating a security event, an analyst finds evidence that a user opened an email attachment from an unknown source. Shortly after the user opened the attachment, a group of servers experienced a large amount of network and resource activity. Upon investigating the servers, the analyst discovers the servers were encrypted by ransomware that is demanding payment within 48 hours or all data will be destroyed. The company has no response plans for ransomware.
Which of the following is the NEXT step the analyst should take after reporting the incident to the management team?

A. Isolate the servers to prevent the spread.
B. Notify law enforcement.
C. Request that the affected servers be restored immediately.
D. Pay the ransom within 48 hours.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Isolating the servers is the best immediate action to take after reporting the incident to the management team, as it can limit the damage and contain the ransomware infection. Paying the ransom is not advisable, as it does not guarantee the recovery of the data and may encourage further attacks. Notifying law enforcement is a possible step, but not the next one after reporting. Requesting that the affected servers be restored immediately may not be feasible or effective, as it depends on the availability and integrity of backups, and it does not address the root cause of the attack. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware-and-how-to-protect-yourselfhttps://www.comptia.org/certific

NEW QUESTION # 466
A SOC analyst is reviewing malicious activity on an external, exposed web server. During the investigation, the analyst determines specific traffic is not being logged, and there is no visibility from the WAF for the web application.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. HTTP traffic is not forwarding to HTTPS to decrypt.
B. A certificate on the WAF is expired.
C. Old, vulnerable cipher suites are still being used.
D. The user agent client is not compatible with the WAF.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 467
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen
to port 4022.
* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single
workstation.
* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight
days.
* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
* Cleartext services are not allowed.
* All devices must be hardened when possible.
Instructions:
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh

WAP A

PC A

Laptop A

Switch A

Switch B:

Laptop B

PC B

PC C

Server A

Answer:

Explanation:
WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic
This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.
Laptop A: Patch management
This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.
Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Laptop B: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.
PC B: Enable disk encryption
This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.
PC C: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:
sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config
Server A. Need to select the following:

NEW QUESTION # 468
A security engineer performed an assessment on a recently deployed web application. The engineer was able to exfiltration a company report by visiting the following URL:
www.intranet.abc.com/get-files.jsp?file=report.pdf
Which of the following mitigation techniques would be BEST for the security engineer to recommend?

A. Firewall
B. Input validation
C. DLP
D. WAF

Answer: B

Explanation:
SQL injection, which exploits a vulnerability in the application's database query to execute malicious SQL commands.
Cross-site scripting (XSS), which injects malicious JavaScript code into the application's web page to execute on the client-side browser.
Directory traversal, which accesses files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.
In this case, the security engineer should recommend input validation as the best mitigation technique, because it would:
Prevent the exfiltration of a company report by validating the file parameter in the URL and ensuring that it matches a predefined list of allowed files or formats.
Enhance the security of the web application by filtering out any malicious or invalid input from users or attackers.
Be more effective and efficient than other techniques, such as firewall, WAF (Web Application Firewall), or DLP (Data Loss Prevention), which may not be able to detect or block all types of web application attacks.

NEW QUESTION # 469
A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process memory location.
Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?

A. Execute never
B. Virtual memory encryption
C. No-execute
D. Total memory encryption

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/ex
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-

NEW QUESTION # 470
......

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